| T O P I C R E V I E W |
| BloodAngel72 |
Posted - 20 Jan 2012 : 04:27:08
Hello everyone and anyone,
My question is about the fuction of arcane magic in the 4e setting. As I understand, there is no weave, shadow-weave, or deity of magic in this setting; period end of story. Yet magic seems almost if not just as possible and natural as it did pre spellplague. As I read the new 4e novels, the mages seem every bit as powerful at casting as they were pre spellplague (with the exception of the immediate after math of the spellplague)i.e. Szass Tamm, Gromph Baenre, and even Garen Hulmaster, Sarth, and the lich in the blades of the moon sea. I am just trying to better understand how magic works in this new setting. Magic is obviously possible without the weave both old and new and I am trying to get a better mental grip on how mages were able to regain the full use of magic in 4e with no weave.
Mod Edit: Found this scroll floating in the ether. |
| 4 L A T E S T R E P L I E S (Newest First) |
| BloodAngel72 |
Posted - 21 Jan 2012 : 04:21:25
Very interesting theories! Good point with the Netherese. Although I did get a funny mental picture of how ticked off Rivalen Tanthul would have been if Sakkors fell out of the sky a second time, lol. The raw magic theory makes alot of sense too. Perhaps the shattering of the weave/shadow weave just merly changed the way to access magic. The Zulkirs of Thay seemed the least phased by the spellplague. Szass Tamm didnt seem alarmed at all in fact. Hope to hear yet more theories :) |
| Eldacar |
Posted - 20 Jan 2012 : 15:13:46
quote:
Originally posted by BloodAngel72
Hello everyone and anyone,
My question is about the fuction of arcane magic in the 4e setting. As I understand, there is no weave, shadow-weave, or deity of magic in this setting; period end of story. Yet magic seems almost if not just as possible and natural as it did pre spellplague. As I read the new 4e novels, the mages seem every bit as powerful at casting as they were pre spellplague (with the exception of the immediate after math of the spellplague)i.e. Szass Tamm, Gromph Baenre, and even Garen Hulmaster, Sarth, and the lich in the blades of the moon sea. I am just trying to better understand how magic works in this new setting. Magic is obviously possible without the weave both old and new and I am trying to get a better mental grip on how mages were able to regain the full use of magic in 4e with no weave.
Mystra isn't quite gone entirely.
My personal theory is that Realmspace (and Toril) was always an extremely magic-rich crystal sphere. Because it has so much raw power, you need a buffer between it and the raw magic of the world (the Weave, Shadow Weave, Table Magic, and so on) to keep your brain from dribbling out your ears, eyes and nose. When Mystra went down, however, this magic was irreparably damaged (from what I recall, in some very old lore there may have been incidents where the death of a god of magic in one world would have repercussions even outside it).
Spellcasters now access the remnants of it. It's raw magic, but has been reduced in power to approximately what all the other worlds who developed a similar degree of power have. Previously, such raw magic would only have been available in the form of true dweomers, epic magic or similar, which requires skill (and often a personal sacrifice on the part of the caster) in order to successfully utilise. Magic looks so much like Weave-based magic because spellcasters sought to replicate effects they had the ability to create pre-Sellplague, so a similar sort of system developed even in the wake of the Weave's destruction.
This is only a personal theory, however, and I want to stress that. It's how I do things in my Realms (or would, if we ever ran Mystra's death, but the current campaign is sitting quite comfortably in 1365 DR and it'll be a long while before we get anywhere near 1385). I seem to remember Ed saying something about the last part (spellcasters developing a system very much like the old one because they sought to replicate what they already knew), but forget the precise context of his remark. |
| Dennis |
Posted - 20 Jan 2012 : 14:32:59
quote:
Originally posted by sfdragon
also the ancient Netherese knew there was another way to cast spells outside of the weave and I must asssume that the creator raaces also knew this..
It's not canon, but I'm of the same mind that they were able to tap on some obscure, powerful source of magic when the Spellplague struck the world. Their mythallars drew magic from the Shadow Weave. When both the Weave and Shadow Weave were obliterated, their city should have fallen. But, no, it remained afloat. |
| sfdragon |
Posted - 20 Jan 2012 : 05:00:49
okay.. .I'm game.
in one of the drizt novels, the transitin series I believe it was, and it was the ghost king I beleive.
this novel has DEnier that the cleric friend of Drizzt woshipped. it also produced the destruction of the soaring spirits cathedral.... enough about that. in one of its mental scenes it has the deity researching a part of the weave fragments. He wrote the fragment into the metatext.
this is but one opinion.
another scould be said that when Cyric killed mystra helping Shar to steal the magic portfolio, Mystra sacrificed her humanity and blew up the dweomerheart and destroyed the weave and placing a bit of its power in each soul of the realms. and thus foiling Shar with her last dying breath.
these are opinions on how magic is stil cast post weave... also the ancient Netherese knew there was another way to cast spells outside of the weave and I must asssume that the creator raaces also knew this.. |
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